Authority in Theology
- Does the modern church overemphasize the divine origin of Scripture?
- Doesn't downplaying the human origins of Scripture make the Bible more exciting?
- When Christians are illiterate, is it helpful for the church to make authoritative decisions?
- Is it legitimate for the church to use images to teach illiterate Christians?
- Did classical polyvalence always ground the figurative meanings of Scripture in its literal meaning?
- How does a polyvalent approach differ from a search for literal meaning?
- Were there good aspects of the medieval Roman Catholic Church?
- How does the modern Roman Catholic Church interpret the Bible?
- Did the Reformers really get their methods of interpretation from the Renaissance?
- How did the interpretive methods of the Reformers accord with Scripture?
- How did first-century Christians interpret the Bible?
- Was Matthew concerned with the original meaning of the Hosea?
- Did the Reformers believe that Scripture could have multiple meanings?
- Why did the church move away from a polyvalent view of Scripture?
- Is every passage of Scripture limited to one, unified meaning?
- Did the Reformers base their theology entirely on their exegesis of Scripture?
- How clear are the teachings of Scripture?
- Should we use clear passages of Scripture to interpret unclear passages?
- Is John 3:16 a clear passage?
- Should we hold all our beliefs with equal conviction?
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