Question
Did Old Testament prophecy, specifically Isaiah 7, require Mary to be a virgin when she gave birth to Jesus?
Answer
No, Isaiah 7 is not about Jesus. Jesus only fulfills the prophecy typologically, meaning that his "fulfillment" was what the prophecy of Isaiah 7 foreshadowed. Also, the "prophecy" was not that the virgin (or "young woman," both are legitimate translations, and even "virgin" does not require virgin conception) would be with child — that was just the sign that the prophecy would come true.
The prophecy that Jesus fulfilled was that Pekah and Rezin would be defeated, and it was accompanied by a similar sign (Jesus' birth by virginal conception). So, no, Mary didn't have to be a virgin in order for Jesus to fulfill the type of the prophecy or of the sign of the prophecy that we find in Isaiah 7. The fact that she was a virgin is an added miracle that testifies to Jesus as the Son of God, and is a typological fulfillment beyond expectations of the type found in Isaiah 7.
The prophecy that Jesus fulfilled was that Pekah and Rezin would be defeated, and it was accompanied by a similar sign (Jesus' birth by virginal conception). So, no, Mary didn't have to be a virgin in order for Jesus to fulfill the type of the prophecy or of the sign of the prophecy that we find in Isaiah 7. The fact that she was a virgin is an added miracle that testifies to Jesus as the Son of God, and is a typological fulfillment beyond expectations of the type found in Isaiah 7.
Ra McLaughlin is Vice President of Finance and Administration at Third Millennium Ministries.
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